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Excellent Nursing Coaching Academy, nchanga, Kazungula (2026)

28/08/2026

𝐰𝐡𝐢𝐜𝐡 𝐜𝐨𝐮𝐫𝐬𝐞 𝐝𝐨 𝐲𝐨𝐮 𝐟𝐚𝐜𝐞 𝐜𝐡𝐚𝐥𝐥𝐞𝐧𝐠𝐞𝐬 𝐦𝐨𝐬𝐭𝐥𝐲?

28/08/2026

𝐁𝐈𝐆 𝐅𝐑𝐈𝐃𝐀𝐘 𝐏𝐑𝐎𝐌𝐎𝐓𝐈𝐎𝐍 𝐘𝐎𝐔 𝐂𝐀𝐍𝐓 𝐌𝐈𝐒𝐒 𝐓𝐇𝐈𝐒 𝐊30 𝐅𝐎𝐑 𝐓𝐇𝐑𝐄𝐄 𝐌𝐎𝐍𝐓𝐇𝐒 974612176 𝐢𝐧𝐛𝐨𝐱

26/08/2026

RN PIV QUALIFYING EXAMINATION – NOVEMBER 2019

Exam No: ------------------------

PART A
IN EACH OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS ENCIRCLE THE LETTER CORRESPONDING WITH THE MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER.

1. Which of the following is a routine laboratory investigation for a pregnant woman:
a) Coomb's test
b) High va**nal swab
c) Full blood count
d) Urinalysis

2. The ability of the uterine muscle to relax and become shorter with each contraction is known as:
a) Contraction
b) Frequency
c) Relaxation
d) Retraction

3. When using a partograph, an alert nurse will determine a difficult labour by the following indication:
a) Undescending fetal head
b) Some degree of moulding
c) Excessive fetal movements
d) Cervical dilatation below 1cm per hour

4. The process by which the products of conception are expelled from the birth ca**l after 28 weeks of gestation is known as:
a) Abortion
b) Labour
c) Normal labour
d) Preterm labour

5. The second stage is divided into two phases namely:
a) Descent and perineal phase
b) Descent and transitional phase
c) Descent and v***a phase
d) Transitional and perineal phase

6. A retro placental blood clot is a diagnostic feature of:
a) Obstructed labour
b) Placenta abruption
c) Placenta previa
d) Ruptured Uterus

7. The return of the reproductive tract to the non-gravid state is known as:
a) Inversion
b) Involution
c) Puerperium
d) Sub-involution

8. The neuromuscular harmony that exists between the lower and upper segment of the uterus is known as:
a) Neuraglia
b) Retraction ring
c) Polarity
d) Uterine Inertia

9. Intra uterine contraceptive device is contraindicated in which category of family planning clients:
a) Breastfeeding women
b) Concurrent partners
c) Limiters
d) Spacers

10. What are the two factors that bring about involution?
a) Autolysis and va**na bleeding
b) Ischemia of the myometrium and Autolysis
c) Ischemia of the myometrium and healing of perineum
d) Uterine relaxation and placenta separation

11. Autolysis is also referred to as:
a) Diuresis
b) Hyperplasia
c) Hypertrophy
d) Self – digestion

12. In a gynaecoid pelvis, the smallest diameter of the pelvic outlet is:
a) Bituberous
b) Bispinous
c) Antero-posterior
d) Oblique

13. The small fissures between the lobes of the placenta are called:
a) Raphes
b) Sulci
c) Gyri
d) Lacunae

14. The primary risk factor for ectopic pregnancy is a prior history of:
a) Auto immune disease
b) Cardiac disease
c) Renal disease
d) Pelvic inflammatory disease

15. Profiling in family planning counselling is done by:
a) Grouping clients according to parity
b) Grouping clients according to reproductive goals
c) Grouping clients according to their preferred method
d) Grouping clients according to career goals

16. One of the following is true about Jadelle:
a) It is inserted and removed in a minor theatre
b) It offers protection against STI/HIV
c) It causes a small increase in ectopic pregnancy
d) It can be inserted and removed by all health workers

17. The key principles governing Sexual Reproductive Health and HIV linkages:
a) Promotes stigma and gender discrimination
b) Focus on human rights and gender promote a coordinated and coherent response
c) Meaningfully involve people living with HIV infection
d) Fosters participation of individual in the community

18. The hormone produced by the corpus luteum is:
a) Progesterone
b) Chorionic gonadotrophin
c) Follicle stimulating hormone
d) Luteinizing hormone

19. Menstruation is as a result of:
a) High levels of luteinizing hormone
b) A rise in the levels of oestrogen
c) A fall in the progesterone level
d) Follicle stimulating hormone

20. The pelvic brim inclines at an angle of approximately:
a) 55 degrees
b) 60 degrees
c) 65 degrees
d) 70 degrees

21. In normal pregnancy the presentation of the foetus at 36 weeks is:-
a) Vertex
b) Breech
c) Shoulder
d) Face

22. Organisms commonly associated with infection of the female urinary tract include:
a) Doderleins bacilli
b) Treponema pallidum
c) Salmonella typhi
d) Escherichia coli

23. The commonest causes of Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases are:
a) Neisseria gonorrhea and E. Coli
b) Chlamydia and Neisseria gonorrhea
c) Staphylococcus and E. Coli
d) Treponema pallidum and Chlamydia

24. STIs in women can be associated with:
a) Fibroids
b) Cervicitis
c) Cancer of the cervix
d) Dysmenorrhoea

25. The hormone which controls secondary male s*x characteristics is the:
a) Oestrogen
b) Relaxin
c) Pitocin
d) Testosterone

26. Which of the following is a symptom of menopause?
a) Breast fullness
b) Dyspareunia
c) Increased libido
d) Moist va**na

27. The common site for development of cervical cancer in the endocervical ca**l where the va**nal and uterine epithelium meet in referred to as:
a) Squamo-columnar junction
b) Squamo-cuboidal junction
c) Ureterova**nal junction
d) Uterovesical junction

28. During pregnancy the proliferation of the alveoli in the breast is caused by:
a) Oestrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Prolactin
d) Oxytocin

29. The lining of the uterus is formed by:
a) Circular layer
b) Fibrous tissue
c) Squamous epithelium
d) Columnar epithelium

30. During the process of gametogenesis, the male and female s*x cells divide and then contain:
a) A diploid number of chromosomes in the nuclei
b) A haploid number of chromosomes in the nuclei
c) Twenty-two pairs of autosomes in their nuclei
d) Forty-six pairs of chromosomes in their nuclei

31. Human chorionic gonadotrophin is found in the:
a) Urine during pregnancy
b) Blood at all times
c) Urine only at night
d) Menstrual flow

32. Pre-rupture of membranes at term includes all the following EXCEPT:
a) Underlying infection
b) Cord prolapse
c) Ascending infection from repeated va**nal examination
d) Spontaneous labour within twelve hours

33. By performing an abdominal palpation, the nurse/midwife should ensure the following EXCEPT:
a) Presenting part is engaged
b) Cord compression or prolapse
c) Fetal heart is okay
d) None of the above

34. The normal uterine contractions originate from:
a) Cornua
b) Fundus
c) Isthmus
d) Cervix

35. In vertex presentation. The fetal head usually enters the pelvic inlet so that the antero-posterior diameter of the head occupies which plane of the pelvic inlet?
a) Longitudinal
b) Right oblique
c) Transverse
d) Left oblique

36. In the fetal skull the lambdoidal suture lies between the two:
a) Frontal and two parietal bones
b) Frontal bones
c) Parietal bones
d) Parietal and Occipito bones

37. One of the following is NOT true about the physiology of the second stage of labour.
a) Contractions become stronger and more frequent
b) The presenting part reaches the brim
c) The mother feels the urge to push
d) The secondary powers come into play

38. An increase in va**nal secretions during pregnancy known as leucorrhoea is caused by increased:
a) Metabolic rate
b) Functioning of the Bartholin gland
c) Production of oestrogen
d) Supply of sodium chloride to the cells of the va**na

39. The perineum lies between the va**na and the re**um. This structure has:
a) A single strong elastic muscle
b) A strong elastic tendon
c) A tendon to which muscles are attached
d) Two strong muscles, the a**l and the transverse perineal

40. The shape of the cervical os in a nullipara is:
a) Round
b) Transverse
c) Oblong
d) Truncated

41. Monozygotic twins:
a) Are 3-4 times as common as binovular twins
b) Develop from a single o**m
c) Develop from more than one o**m
d) Are also referred to as fraternal twins

42. The inner lining of a non-pregnant uterus is called:
a) Myometrium
b) Parametrium
c) Endometrium
d) Decidua

43. In face presentation the denominator is:
a) Sinciput
b) Mentum
c) Bregma
d) Glabella

44. Vaginal bleeding before 28 weeks of gestation is commonly due to:
a) Threatened abortion
b) Carneous mole
c) Antepartum haemorrhage
d) Hydatidiform mole

45. Coitus during pregnancy could be contra indicated in the presence of:-
a) Leucorrhoea
b) Gestation of 30 weeks or more
c) Premature rupture of membranes
d) Increased fetal heart rate

46. When assessing the adequacy of the pelvis, the nurse/midwife feels for the following EXCEPT:-
a) Curvature of the spine
b) Sacro-spinous ligament
c) Prominence of the ischial spines
d) Lower boarder of the symphysis p***s

47. In type II classification of Placenta praevia:
a) Placenta covers part of the cervical Os
b) Placenta reaches the cervical Os and covers it
c) Placenta reaches the cervical Os but does not cover it
d) Placenta completely cover the Os

48. Which placental hormone predisposes the pregnant woman to gestational diabetes?
a) Human chorionic gonadotrophin
b) Human placental lactogen
c) Oestrogen
d) Progesterone

49. The deliberate initiation of uterine contractions prior to their spontaneous onset is referred to as:
a) Augmentation of labour
b) Induction of labour
c) Physiology of labour
d) Trial of labour

50. The sinking of the foetus in the lower pole of the uterus in late pregnancy is termed:
a) Engagement
b) Lightening
c) Pelvic give
d) Quickening

26/08/2026

Soon 🔜 you will hear this (what's your expectations) for June 2026 NMCZ Results

26/08/2026

𝗕𝗮 𝗼𝗹𝗱 𝗰𝗮𝗿𝗿𝗶𝗰𝘂𝗹𝘂𝗺 𝗷𝗼𝗶𝗻 𝗵𝗲𝗿𝗲 ( https://chat.whatsapp.com/BGAxggNsF2XFcxW4LzD7l5?s=cl&p=a&ilr=4

25/08/2026

𝗝𝗢𝗜𝗡 𝗡𝗢𝗪 𝗔𝗡𝗗 𝗖𝗔𝗧𝗖𝗛 𝗨𝗣 𝗪𝗜𝗧𝗛 𝗨𝗦 𝗖𝗟𝗜𝗖𝗞 𝗛𝗘𝗥𝗘 974612176

25/08/2026

Big shout out to my newest top fans! 💎 Esther Nombuhle Mwelwa, Lucy Ngwira, Eunice Masiye, Lillian Muleya, Dorica Sarah Mbewe

Drop a comment to welcome them to our community,

24/08/2026

𝗜𝗙 𝗬𝗢𝗨 𝗔𝗥𝗘 𝗪𝗥𝗜𝗧𝗧𝗜𝗡𝗚 𝗟𝗘𝗔𝗗𝗘𝗥𝗦𝗛𝗜𝗣 𝗚𝗘𝗧 𝗧𝗛𝗜𝗦 𝗖𝗢𝗣𝗬 2014 𝗰𝗮𝗿𝗿𝗶𝗰𝘂𝗹𝘂𝗺 974612176

24/08/2026

SECTION C: COMPLETION
COMPLETE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCES WITH THE MISSING WORDS.

71. ------------------------ are extremely dilated sub-mucosal veins in the lower third of the esophagus.

72. ------------------------ is a surgical creation of an opening into the colon.

73. During wound healing ------------------------ in the clot binds the wound edges together

74. ------------------------ is when there is loss of effective circulating blood volume and inadequate organ and tissue perfusion resulting in derangement of cellular functions.

75. A ------------------------ is a mass of new tissue which develops from normal tissue but has no useful function for the body.

76. The inva**nation of the proximal intestine into the distal part is called ------------------------

77. A document which empowers the surgeon and the theatre team to conduct a procedure on the patient is called ------------------------

78. An instrument that measures the power of a patient's spectacles during an eye examination is called ------------------------

79. ------------------------ is caused by conditions that allow nasopharyngeal flora to reflux through the Eustachian tube and colonize the middle ear, such as respiratory tract infection and allergic reaction.

80. ------------------------ is an emergency or elective lifesaving surgical procedure where an opening is created in the anterior wall of the trachea between the second and third tracheal rings for the purpose of establishing an airway to facilitate breathing which may either be temporary or permanent.

81. Nose bleeding which originates further back and higher up the nose where the artery branches supply blood to the nose is called ------------------------

82. ------------------------ is a surgical procedure that removes an infected portion of the mastoid bone when medical treatment is not effective.

83. Pelvic floor exercises which help to reduce postoperative dribbling following prostatectomy are called ------------------------

84. The most common form of prostate cancer is ------------------------

85. The race of men with the lowest cases of Prostate cancer is ------------------------

86. The surgical removal of the whole stomach is called ------------------------

87. The type shock which is caused by overwhelming infection leading to vasodilatation is referred to as ------------------------

88. The drug of choice in the treatment of prostatitis is ------------------------

89. Removal of the tongue, the buccal mucosa and floor of the mouth is called ------------------------

90. The inflammation of the esophagus is called ------------------------

91. A pouch opening out from a hollow viscous of one or more layers of a tubular organ is called ------------------------

92. Resection of a portion and anastomose the remaining part to a segment of the colon is called ------------------------

93. An excavation formed in the mucosal wall of the stomach, the pylorus, the duodenum or the esophagus is called ------------------------

94. The stage where the cancer has spread to nearby lymph nodes, but not to other parts of the body is ------------------------

95. The surgery that involves only removal of a quarter of the thyroid glandular tissue is termed as ------------------------

96. Increase in the number of cells of a tissue; most often associated with periods of rapid body growth ------------------------

97. Conversion of one type of mature cell into another type of cell is called ------------------------

98. Use of liquid nitrogen or a very cold probe to freeze tissue and cause cell destruction ------------------------

99. The loss of body weight, adipose tissue, visceral protein, and skeletal muscle ------------------------

100. A machine that is used to both cut and coagulate blood vessels during an operation is called ------------------------

24/08/2026

𝗡𝗘𝗫𝗧 𝗦𝗘𝗦𝗦𝗜𝗢𝗡 12:00𝗵𝗿𝘀 𝗘𝘅𝗮𝗰𝘁𝗹𝘆 𝗕𝗮 𝗗𝗲𝗰𝗲𝗺𝗯𝗲𝗿 974612176

Excellent Nursing Coaching Academy

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